SSC CGL 2024 Tier-II Solved Question Paper

Q.1 ΔABC is inscribed in a circle with centre O. If AB = 21 cm, BC = 20 cm, and AC = 29 cm, then what is the length of the circumradius of the triangle?

1. 13.5 cm
2. 21.5 cm
3. 32.5 cm
4. 14.5 cm

Solution:

To find the circumradius R of △ABC, we use the circumradius formula:
R = abc/(4×Area of △ABC)
= 21×20×29/(4×210) = 14.5

Ans (4)

Q.2 On a 2200 m long circular track, Sarita and Kavita drove their cycles from the same point but in opposite directions with speeds of 20 km/hr and 16 km/hr, respectively. After how much time will they meet again for the first time?

1. 3 minutes 40 seconds
2. 3 minutes 20 seconds
3. 2 minutes 50 seconds
4. 2 minutes 20 seconds

Solution:

Speed in m/s (20+16)×5/18 = 10m/s
They will meet after = 2200/10 = 220s = 3m 40s

Ans (1)

Q.3 In a triangle HJK, HJ = HK. G is a point on HJ such that HG = GK = JK. What is the degree measure of two-third of (∠HGK + ∠GKJ)?

1. 84°
2. 136°
3. 90°
4. 96°

Solution:

∠GHK = ∠GKH = x ∵ HG = GK
∠HJK = ∠HKJ = y ∵ HJ = HK
∠KGJ = ∠KJG = y ∵ GK = JK
y = 2x ∵ ∠KGJ is exterior angle
From triangle KGJ
3y – x = 180° ⇒ 6x – x = 180°
x = 36° ∴ y = 72°
2/3 × (∠HGK + ∠GKJ) = 2 × (108° + 36°)/3
= 96°

Ans (4)

Q.4 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 at 6.5% per annum rate of interest for the period from 14 February 2023 to 28 April 2023.

1. 27
2. 25
3. 26
4. 24

Solution:

SI = (2000 × 6.5/100) × (43/365)
= 26.35 = 26 Approx.

Ans (3)

Q.5 The population of a place increased to 50,000 from 2016 to 2018 at the rate of 6% per annum and continued the same trend for the next 3 years. If A is the population in 2016 and B is the population in 2020, both approximated to the next possible integers, then the value of B−A is:

1. 11,680
2. 13,220
3. 16,270
4. 12,850

Solution:

A = 50000/(1.06 × 1.06) = 44500, B = 50000 × 1.06 × 1.06 = 56180
B – A = 11680

Ans (1)

Q.6 If the areas of two similar triangles are in the ratio 121 : 225

1. 15 : 13
2. 11 : 15
3. 9 : 11
4. 11 : 13

Solution:

a/b = √(121/225) = 11/15

Ans (2)

Q.7 Find the value of Y, if X− 2Y + 2Z = 16, X − Y + Z = 9 and 2X − 3Y − Z = 9.

1. 4
2. 2
3. -4
4. -3

Solution:

X− 2Y + 2Z = 16 (Subtract this)
X − Y + Z = 9 (Multiply by 2)
______________________
X = 2

X − Y + Z = 9
2X − 3Y − Z = 9 (Add this)
______________________
3X – 4Y = 18 (Put value of X)

Y = -3

Ans (4)

Q.8 Rani and Adya, working separately, can finish a task in 12 days and 16 hours, respectively. They work in stretches of one day alternately. If Rani starts working first, then the task will be completed in:

1. 12 1/3 days
2. 12 2/3 days
3. 13 2/3 days
4. 13 1/3 days

Solution:

If there is 48 unit work
Rani efficiency = 48/12 = 4
Adya efficiency = 48/16 = 3
Work Done in 12 day = (4+3)×6 = 42
Next day 4 unit work done by Rani total = 46
Next day remaining 2 unit work done by Adya in = 2/3 days
So work done by = 13 2/3 days

Ans (3)

Q.9 Let A and B be two players who are playing a game to hit the target. The probabilities of hitting the target by A and B is 2/3 and 3/4, respectively. What is the probability that exactly one of them hits the target?

1. 7/12
2. 1/4
3. 5/12
4. 1/12

Solution:

Probability that A hits and B does not hit:
P(A hits and B does not) = P(A) × P(not B) = 2/3 × (1 – 3/4) = 2/12

Probability that B hits and A does not hit:
P(B hits and A does not) = P(B) × P(not A) = 3/4 × (1 – 2/3) = 3/12

Total probability for exactly one to hit

Now, we add the two probabilities:
P(exactly one hits) = 2/12+3/12 = 5/12

Ans (3)

Q.10 On the occasion of Republic Day, a retail store offers a scheme where customers can avail a discount of 26% on their total purchase. If Manish buys items worth ₹2,050, how much money (in ₹) will he save through the scheme discount?

1. 522
2. 511
3. 533
4. 544

Solution:

He save = 2050 × 26/100 = 533

Ans (3)

Q.11 Vessel A contains milk and water in the ratio 4 : 5. Vessel B contains milk and water in the ratio 2 : 1. If x litres mixture of A is mixed with y litres mixture of B, then the ratio of milk to water in the mixture becomes 8 : 5.
Find the ratio x : y.

1. 5 : 6
2. 3 : 10
3. 2 : 5
4. 3 : 4

Solution:

(4x/9 + 2y/3) : (5x/9 + y/3) = 8/5
(4x + 6y) : (5x + 3y) = 8/5
20x + 30y = 40x +24y
6y = 20x
x:y = 3:10

Ans (2)

Q.12 The average of the first 91 even numbers is:

1. 91
2. 90
3. 92
4. 93

Solution:

Sum of 2(1,2,…….91) = 2×(91×92/2)
Average = (91×92)/91 = 92

Ans (3)

Q.13 Find the volume (in cm, rounded off to 2 decimal places) of a right circular cone of diameter 12 cm and height 5 cm.

1. 197.25
2. 156.39
3. 188.57
4. 147.23

Solution:

V = 1/3 πr²h
= 1/3 × 22/7 × 6² × 5 = 188.57

Ans (3)

Q.14 ∛6859/∜1296 × 3/57 × 42

1. 7
2. -3
3. 16
4. 17

Solution:

∛6859/∜1296 × 3/57 × 42
= 19/6 × 3/57 × 42 = 7

Ans (1)

Q.15 If x = 8 + √5 and y = 8 – √5 then the value of x² + y² is:

1. 138
2. 143
3. 140
4. 124

Solution:

x + y = 16 and xy = (64 – 5) = 59
(x² + y² ) = (x + y)² – 2xy = 256 – 118 = 138

Ans (1)

Q.16 A sum of money is to be distributed among 3 friends P, Q, and R in the proportion of 5:3:4. If P gets ₹1500 more than R, what is Q’s share?

1. ₹4,500
2. ₹4,950
3. ₹5,100
4. ₹4,680

Solution:

(P – R) = (5 – 4) = 1
1 Unit = 1500
Q = 3 Unit = 3 × 1500 = 4500

Ans (1)

Q.17 If tan(x + y)tan(x – y) = 1, then find the value of tanx.

1. √3
2. 1
3. 1/2√3
4. 1/√3

Solution:

tanAtanB = 1 ⟹ A + B = 90°
Thus, we set:
(x + y) + (x − y) = 90°
x = 45°
tan x = tan45° = 1

Ans (2)

Q.18 Using empirical formula, calculate the mode for the following data.
17, 20, 21, 18, 25, 28, 24, 22, 16, 24, 25, 24

1. 25.8
2. 30.6
3. 25
4. 32

Solution:

The empirical formula to calculate the mode is:

Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean

Mean = ∑X​/N = 264/12 = 22
Median = (22 + 24)/2 ​= 46​/2 = 23
Mode = 3 × 23 − 2 × 22 = 25

Ans (3)

Q.19 If (secθ – tanθ)／(secθ + tanθ) = 1/9, θ lies in the first quadrant, then the value of (sinθ – tan²θ)/(sinθ + tan²θ)​

1. – 3/27
2. 13/27
3. 11/29
4. – 11/29

Solution:

(secθ – tanθ)／(secθ + tanθ) = 1/9
⇒ 8secθ = 10tanθ
⇒ 8 = 10sinθ
⇒ sinθ = 4/5
⇒ tanθ = 4/3
∴ (sinθ – tan²θ)/(sinθ + tan²θ)​​ = (4/5 – 16/9)/(4/5 + 16/9)
= (36 – 80)/(36 + 80)
= -11/29

Ans (4)

Q.20 (a⁷ × b⁸ × c⁷) ⧸(a⁹ × b⁵ × c⁴) in simplified form is:

1. (a^-5) × (b^-8) × (c⁰)
2. (a^-7) × (b²) × (c^-4)
3. (a^-2) × (b³) × (c³)
4. (a⁰) × (b²) × (c¹)

Solution:

(a^7-9) × (b^8-5) × (c^7-4)
= (a^-2) × (b³) × (c³)

Ans (3)

Q.21 By how much is 60% of 75 greater than 1/5 of 25?

1. 37
2. 34
3. 40
4. 38

Solution:

= 3/5 × 75 – 25/5 = (45 – 5) = 40

Ans (3)

Q.22 If the average age of three persons is 56 years and their ages are in the ratio 2: 5 : 7, then find the age of the youngest person.

1. 24 years
2. 20 years
3. 22 years
4. 26 years

Solution:

= (3 × 56)/(2+5+7) = 12
the age of the youngest person = 2 × 12 = 24

Ans (1)

Q.23 A toy is in the form of a cone mounted on a hemisphere. The radius of the hemisphere and that of the cone is 36 cm and height of the cone is 105 cm. The total surface area (in cm2) of the toy is:

1. 6025 π
2. 6588 π
3. 5799 π
4. 5240 π

Solution:

Slant Height of the Cone l = √(r² + h²) = √(36² + 105²) = 111
The total surface area of the toy consists of: (Curved Surface Area of Cone) + (Curved Surface Area of Hemisphere)
= πrl + 2πr² = 36 × 111π + 2 × 36 × 36π
= 3996π + 2592π = 6588π

Ans (2)

Q.24 Anil and Beena are friends, and the difference between their ages is 5 years. Anil’s father Dinesh is three times as old as Anil, and Beena is twice as old as her sister Charu. The ages of Dinesh and Charu differ by 45 years. If Beena is older than Anil, then find the sum of the present ages of both Dinesh and Charu.

1. 100 years
2. 91 years
3. 69 years
4. 78 years

Solution:

If Anil = A, Beena = B, Charu = C, Dinesh = D
B – A = 5 ….(1)
D = 3A ….(2)
B = 2C ….(3)
D – C = 45 ….(4)
6A – B = 90 ……(put values of D and C in 4)
B – A = 5 …… Add these both
A = 19, B = 24
(D + C) = (57 + 12) = 69

Ans (3)

Q.25 The height of a right circular cone is 63 cm and the area of its curved surface is five times the area of its base. What is the volume (in cm3) of the cone? (Use π = 22/7)

1. 12589.10
2. 11234.65
3. 10914.75
4. 13540.25

Solution:

πrl = 5πr² => l = 5r
l² = (63² + r²)
24r² = 63² => r² = 63²/24
V = 1/3 × 22/7 × r² × h
= 1/3 × 22/7 × 63²/24 × 63 = 10914.75

Ans (3)

Q.26 A man buys 10 identical articles for a total of ₹15. If he sells each of them for ₹1.7, then his profit percentage will be __%'(rounded off to two decimal place).

1. 14.33
2. 13.33
3. 12.76
4. 11.76

Solution:

= 2 × 100/15 = 13.33

Ans (2)

Q.27 Find the median of the following data. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places.)
Class interval 0-5 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35
Frequency 3 5 4 2 7 6 5

1. 18.64
2. 20.53
3. 21.43
4. 23.40

Solution:

Cumulative Frequency Table

Class Interval	Frequency (f)	Cumulative Frequency (CF)
0 – 5	3	3
5 – 10	5	3 + 5 = 8
10 – 15	4	8 + 4 = 12
15 – 20	2	12 + 2 = 14
20 – 25	7	14 + 7 = 21
25 – 30	6	21 + 6 = 27
30 – 35	5	27 + 5 = 32

Find Median Class

• Total number of observations: N = 32
• Median position: N/2 = 32/2 = 16
• The cumulative frequency just greater than 16 is 21, corresponding to the class 20 – 25.
• So, median class = 20 – 25.

Use the Median Formula

\( \text{Median} = L + \left( \frac{\frac{N}{2} – cf}{f} \right) \times h \)

Where:

• L = 20 (lower boundary of the median class)
• N = 32 (total frequency)
• CF = 14 (cumulative frequency before median class)
• f = 7 (frequency of median class)
• h = 5 (class width)

Median = 20 + (16 – 14)/7 × 5 = 21.43

Ans (3)

Q.28 Let ABC be a right-angled triangle with a right angle at B. If tan A = √3, then find the value of sin A cos C + cos A sin C and cos A cos C — sin A sin C.

1. √3/2, √3/2
2. 1/2, 1/2
3. 1, 0
4. √3/2, 1/2

Solution:

tan A = √3, So ∠A = 60° and ∠C = 30°
sin A cos C + cos A sin C = √3/2 × √3/2 + 1/2 × 1/2 = 3/4 + 1/4 = 1
cos A cos C — sin A sin C = 1/2 × √3/2 — √3/2 × 1/2 = 0

Ans (3)

Q.29 Simplify (5z — 12y)² + (12z + 5y)² — 144z²

1. 25z² + 169y²
2. 23z² + 177y²
3. 23z² + 174y²
4. 30z² + 170y²

Solution:

= (25z² + 144z²) + (144y² + 25y²) — 120zy + 120zy — 144z²
= 25z² + 169y²

Ans (1)

Q.30 The value of 4³ — 0² + (22/2)² — 8 + 7×6 = _____

1. 218
2. 224
3. 219
4. 229

Solution:

= 64 – 0 + 121 – 8 + 42 = 219

Ans (3)

Section : Module II Reasoning and General Intelligence

Q.1 In this question, two statements are followed by four conclusions given as options. Decide which conclusion is definitely true, based on the given statements.

Statements:
A < B ≥ C > D
C > E ≥ F = G

2. A < E
3. D < F
4. G > C
5. B > G

Q.2 A question is given, followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the statements is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the question.

Question:
In a certain code language, ‘fire in mountain’ is coded as ‘si ph bo’. What is code for ‘fire’?

Statements:
(I) ‘mountain’ is coded as ‘bo’.
(II) ‘ice and fire’ is coded as ‘si yu ca’.

1. Data in Statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question
2. Data in Statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question
3. Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement II is not
4. Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement I is not

Q.3 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

Q.4 Given below is a statement (Cause) followed by possible effects numbered I, II and III. Read the ‘Cause’ carefully and decide which of the three can be possible effect/s.

Cause – Many people in City X have reported receiving two electricity bills this month, instead of one.

Effect I – The Electricity Board has published the details of areas where power shutdowns are expected tomorrow in City X.
Effect II – The municipal commissioner of City X has clarified that the technical glitch which led to multiple electricity bills being generated would be resolved within 48 hours.
Effect III – Long queues were seen outside the electricity board offices in many localities.

1. Only II is a possible effect.
2. Both I and II are possible effects .
3. Only I is a possible effect.
4. Both II and III are possible effects.

Q.5 In a certain code language, ‘POSE’ is coded as ‘3517’ and ‘SILK’ is coded as ‘4638’. What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?

1. 4
2. 1
3. 8
4. 3

Q.6 Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown.

Ans

Q.7 Figure A is related to B in a certain pattern. Following the same pattern, figure C is related to D. Study the pattern and select the figure which should be in place of D.

Ans

Q.8 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

Ans

Q.9 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(215, 185, 135)
(276, 246, 196)

Ans

1. (255, 235, 205)
2. (294, 264, 224)
3. (269, 229, 199)
4. (238, 208, 158)

Q.10 How many meaningful English words can be formed using first, third, sixth and seventh letters of the word RECOGNIZE (when counted from left to right) using all the letters but each letter only once in each word?

Ans

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. None

Q.11 The following contains two pairs of words which are related to each other
in a certain way. Three of the following four word-pairs are alike as these
have the same relationship and thus form a group. Which word-pair does
NOT belong to that group?
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be grouped based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)

Ans

1. Park – Swim
2. Restaurant – Dinner
3. Temple – Pray
4. Theatre – Movies

Q.12 Read the following information and answer the question which follows.

“Similar to expert puzzle solvers, Solver S employs systematic problemsolving approaches, ensuring efficient and accurate resolutions to complex challenges.”

Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement? (An inference is something which is not directly stated but can be derived from the given facts/information in the statement)

1. The efficiency and accuracy of Solver S in resolving complex challenges
   may be attributed to their systematic problem-solving methods.
2. Solver S utilizes systematic problem-solving approaches, similar to
   expert puzzle solvers.

Ans

1. Both (I) and (II) can be inferred.
2. Only (I) can be inferred.
3. Neither (I) nor (II) can be inferred.
4. Only (II) can be inferred.

Q.13 U is the father of N. N is the sister of T. T is the wife of I. I is son of L. How is U related to L?

Ans

1. Son’s wife’s father
2. Son’s wife
3. Son’s wife’s sister
4. Son’s wife’s mother

Q.14 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following
words in a logical and meaningful order.

1. Design 2. Test 3. Conceptualize 4. Develop 5. Implement

Ans

1. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
2. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
3. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
4. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2

Q.15 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

1. Delivery
2. Finished Paper
3. Dry
4. Pulp
5. Press

Ans

1. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
2. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3
3. 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
4. 5, 4, 2, 3, 1

Q.16 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
9, 5, 6, 10.5, 23, ?

Ans

1. 90
2. 80
3. 60
4. 50

Q.17 Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Q has the exam on Saturday. Only two people have exams between S and Q. R has the exam before S, but after P. U has the exam immediately after T. On which of the following days does V have the exam?

Ans

1. Saturday
2. Thursday
3. Sunday
4. Friday

Q.18 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.
Based on the above, how is U related to Z if ‘U + V ÷ W – Y x Z’?

Ans

1. Wife’s Mother’s Sister
2. Wife’s Father’s Mother
3. Wife’s Mother’s Mother
4. Wife’s Father’s Sister

Q.19 Four of the following five figures are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group?

Ans

1. C
2. D
3. B
4. A

Q.20 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

Q.21 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first number. In three of the four pairs, the same pattern is applied and hence they form a group. Select the number-pair that does NOT belong to this group.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

Ans

1. 13 – 144
2. 31 – 341
3. 18 – 198
4. 22 – 242

Q.22 A question is given, followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the statements is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the question.

Question:
Arvind has blue, green and white marbles. What is the percentage of white marbles out of all the marbles he has?

Statements:
(I) The sum of blue and green marbles he has is 7.
(II) He has 3 white marbles out of 10 marbles.

Ans

1. Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement I is not
2. Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in Statement II is not
3. Data in Statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question
4. Data in Statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question

Q.23 Six letters P, Q, S, T, U and V are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in thefigure. Find the letter on the face opposite to T.

Ans

1. S
2. U
3. V
4. P

Q.24 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will be come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

55 B 5 D 13 B 2 C 14 A 7 D 15 B 5 C 102 A 2 C 15 = ?

Ans

1. 203
2. 242
3. 291
4. 177

Q.25 Each of the digits in the number 5238641 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that/those in the original number ?

Ans

1. None
2. Two
3. Three
4. One

Q.26 A statement is followed by two arguments I and II. Read the statement and the arguments carefully and select the appropriate answer from the given options.

Statement:
Hydroelectricity is a cleaner and greener energy than other forms of power generation.

Arguments:
(I) Hydroelectric plants almost have nil CO2 emissions.
(II) Hydroelectric power projects submerge huge amounts under water thereby affecting local flora and fauna.

Ans

1. Both I and II weaken the statement.
2. II weakens while I strengthens the statement.
3. Both I and II strengthen the statement.
4. I weakens while II strengthens the statement.

Q.27 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?

#: XAF :: SVA : %

Ans

1. # = BEJ % = QRW
2. # = BEJ % = ORW
3. # = BEJ % = ORP
4. # = BBJ % = ORW

Q.28 O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre(but not necessarily in the same order). P sits second to the left of T. S sits third to the right of Q. Q is not an immediate neighbour of P. O sits second to the right of S. Which of the following represents the position of O with respect of R?

Ans

1. Third to the left
2. Second to the left
3. Immediate right
4. Third to the right

Q.29 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement(s).

Statements:
All sheeps are cows.
Some cows are horses.
All horses are jackals.

Conclusion:
(I) Some jackals are cows.
(II) Some horses are sheeps.

Ans

1. Only Conclusion (II) follows.
2. Both Conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
3. Neither Conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
4. Only Conclusion (I) follows.

Q.30 In a certain code language, ‘she gardens daily’ is coded as ‘ak jb mp’ and ‘where is she’ is coded as ‘mp pt kt’. How is ‘she’ coded in the given language?

Ans

1. mp
2. pt
3. ak
4. kt

Section : Module I English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

The trainer tried to guage the learners’ understanding of the subject by asking several new questions.

Ans

1. Gaage
2. Gaaug
3. Gaugg
4. Gauge

Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word.

He walked leisurely towards the entrance.

Ans

1. without haste
2. reassuringly
3. with a kickstart
4. hastily

Q.3 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. It consists of a terracotta army of approximately 8000 life-sized men and horses.
B. Each of the horses and men is individually sculpted by a 3-inch-thick terracotta clay and looks unique.
C. Shi Huangdi was the founder of Qin Dynasty and was the first ruler of unified China in 221 BC.
D. His mausoleum was recently discovered in 1974 by Chinese peasants who were drilling a well.

Ans

1. CADB
2. CABD
3. CBAD
4. CDAB

Q.4 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence to form a meaningful sentence.

a. it requires constant sustenance
b. in order for life to be liveable,
c. that enable it to grow and develop
d. and favourable circumstances

Ans

1. a, b, c, d
2. b, a, d, c
3. b, d, a, c
4. d, c, b, a

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

No other book in the series captivated readers as _____ as the final installment.

Ans

1. many
2. more
3. most
4. much

Q.6 A sentence has been split up into segments and given below in jumbled order. While the first and the last segments of the sentence (1 and 6) are in the correct order, the segments in between are jumbled up. Arrange the segments in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent sentence.

1) India has been a land
P) and the learned man has been held in higher esteem
Q) of learning through the ages
R) but in the sense that learning has always been very highly valued
S) not indeed in the sense that education has been universal
6) than the warrior or the administrator.

Ans

1. P, S, Q, R
2. Q, S, R, P
3. R, Q, S, P
4. S, R, Q, P

Q.7 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.

“I am determined to publish my findings,” the scientist asserted confidently.

Ans

1. The scientist confidently asserted that she is determined to publish her findings.
2. The scientist confidently asserted that she had determined to publish her findings.
3. The scientist confidently asserted that she would be determined to publish her findings.
4. The scientist confidently asserted that she was determined to publish her findings.

Q.8 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

One who cannot make a mistake

Ans

1. Impregnable
2. Inevitable
3. Inimitable
4. Infallible

Q.9 Select the most appropriate homophone from the options to fill in the blank.

We should _ away all prejudices to live in harmony.

Ans

1. caste
2. coast
3. cast
4. cost

Q.10 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

1. As cost of raw materials cannot be reduced, exporters try to cut labour costs.
2. Large MNCs in the garment industry in Europe and America order their products from Indian exporters.
3. These large MNCs with worldwide network look for the cheapest goods in order to maximise their profits.
4. To get these large orders, Indian garment exporters try hard to cut their own costs.
5. Where earlier a factory used to employ workers on a permanent basis, now they employ workers only on a temporary basis so that they do not have to pay workers for the whole year.

Ans

1. BCDAE
2. CDAEB
3. DCABE
4. ADECB

Q.11 Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

All criminal attitudes must be niped at the bud.

Ans

1. Niiped
2. Nipped
3. Nipeed
4. Nipedd

Q.12 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

The teacher informed that the exam had been postponed.

Ans

1. The teacher informs, “The exam had been postponed.”
2. The teacher informed, “The exam was being postponed.”
3. The teacher informs, “The exam has been postponed.”
4. The teacher informed, “The exam has been postponed.”

Q.13 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

1. Psychotherapy is a voluntary relationship between the one seeking treatment or the client and the one who treats or the therapist.
2. The relationship is conducive for building the trust of the client so that problems may be freely discussed.
3. The purpose of the relationship is to help the client to solve the psychological problems being faced by her or him.
4. Psychotherapies aim at changing the maladaptive behaviours, decreasing the sense of personal distress and helping the client to adapt better to her/his environment.
5. Inadequate marital, occupational and social adjustment also requires that major changes be made in an individual’s personal environment.

Ans

1. DCABE
2. EDACB
3. ACBDE
4. CDEBA

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Rashid was not able to _ the pain after the accident.

Ans

1. beer
2. buyer
3. bear
4. bare

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Did you hear that noise?

Ans

1. Was that noise heard by you?
2. Is that noise heard by you?
3. Wasn’t that noise heard by you?
4. Has that noise been heard by you?

Q.16 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech.

The District Magistrate ordered the police to work all night and put an end to those riots.

Ans

1. The District Magistrate told the police, “Work all night and put to end these riots.”
2. The District Magistrate told the police, “Work all night and put an end to these riots.”
3. The District Magistrate told the police, “Work all night and put an end to their riots.”
4. The District Magistrate told the police, “Work all night to put an end these riots.”

Q.17 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

The team decided to pull out all the stops for their upcoming presentation.

Ans

1. Keep things simple and straightforward
2. Wait patiently for a more favourable time
3. Give up easily and without thinking much
4. To do everything to make something successful

Q.18 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Everyone was surprised at his speech.

Ans

1. His speech surprised everyone.
2. His speech surprise everyone.
3. His speech was surprising to everyone.
4. His speech is surprising everyone.

Q.19 Complete the dialogue for Person B using the correct idiom.

Person A: I am so nervous. I don’t think I should make the speech tomorrow.
Person B: No. You are just getting _. You have prepared for this.

Ans

1. cold foot
2. cold feet
3. cold hand
4. hot feet

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Luck does not always favour us, so we must always depend _ our own efforts for success.

Ans

1. in
2. upon
3. for
4. at

Q.21 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

1. beginning in the 19th century,
2. was long a mystery, and
3. the origin of the Moon
4. three competing theories emerged to solve it

Ans

1. dcab
2. bdca
3. abdc
4. cbad

Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The mango is the_________ fruit.

Ans

1. sweet
2. sweeter
3. sweetly
4. sweetest

Q.23 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The explosion caused serious damage in Ukraine.

Ans

1. In Ukraine, serious damage had been caused by the explosion.
2. Serious damage has been caused by the explosion in Ukraine.
3. Serious damage in Ukraine has been caused by the explosion.
4. Serious damage was caused by the explosion in Ukraine.

Q.24 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given below.

Enhance

Ans

1. Enrich
2. Miracle
3. Impair
4. Relevance

Q.25 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A sudden and violent change or upheaval

Ans

1. Tranquility
2. Serenity
3. Equanimity
4. Turbulence

Q.26 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Generous

1. Selfish
2. Benevolent
3. Altruistic
4. Magnanimous

Q.27 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

It takes me an hour to get to work at the moment, but when the new road is finished it be much quicker.

1. but when the new road is finished
2. it be much quicker
3. at the moment
4. It takes me an hour to get to work

Q.28 Select the most appropriate pronoun to fill in the blank.

Mr. Amit Kumar, Proprietor of Xyling Pens is known for _________ honesty and decent behaviour in the business arena.

1. his
2. they
3. it
4. her

Q.29 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Accumulated

1. Scattered
2. Spared
3. Bunched
4. Garnered

Comprehension: (Q.30 – Q.33)
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Climate change (1)_____ an imminent threat to our planet, demanding urgent global action. The rise in greenhouse gas emissions, deforestation and unsustainable practices contribute to extreme weather events, rising sea levels and disruptions in ecosystems. To (2)________ these effects, a collaborative international effort is essential. Nations (3)________ commit to reducing carbon emissions, transitioning to renewable energy sources and implementing sustainable practices. Cooperation on technological advancements and sharing resources will foster a collective resilience against the impacts of climate change. The urgency of this issue calls for a united front, where governments, businesses and individuals work together to create a sustainable and resilient future for the (4)________ to come.

Q.30 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

1. will pose
2. poses
3. will be posing
4. posed

Q.31 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

1. widen
2. maximise
3. mitigate
4. inflate

Q.32 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

1. must
2. could
3. would
4. might

Q.33 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

1. backward nations
2. generations
3. businessmen
4. poor people

Comprehension: (Q.34 – Q37)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Subhas Chandra Bose, a prominent Indian nationalist leader, was convinced that India could not achieve independence without the use of force, and he believed that a military campaign was necessary to achieve this goal. In 1942, Bose formed the Indian National Army (INA) with the help of the Japanese.
Bose travelled to Japan in 1941 to seek their support in the struggle against British rule in India. The Japanese were interested in having Bose’s help in their own efforts to expand their influence in Southeast Asia. Bose’s vision was to create a military force to fight against the British in India with the help of Japanese weapons and training. The INA was formed in Singapore in September 1942 with the slogan ‘Jai Hind’ (Victory to India). The INA consisted of soldiers who were primarily from the Indian community in Southeast Asia. They were trained by Japanese officers and were equipped with Japanese weapons. The INA fought alongside Japanese forces in Burma and other parts of Southeast Asia during World War II.
Bose’s leadership of the INA and his military campaigns against the British in India made him a popular figure among many Indians. The consequences of the formation of the INA were significant. The INA’s campaigns against the British in India and the Indian soldiers’ role in the Burma campaign had a psychological impact on the British forces. The British were shocked that Indian soldiers had turned against them, undermining their confidence in maintaining control over India. The INA also had a significant impact on the Indian independence movement. Bose’s vision of a socialist India with equal rights for all citizens inspired many Indians. The INA became a symbol of the struggle against British colonialism, and Bose’s slogan of ‘Jai Hind’ became a rallying cry for the independence movement.
However, the INA’s military campaigns were not successful in achieving their goal of freeing India from British rule. The INA suffered significant losses in battles, and their efforts were undermined by the Japanese surrender in 1945.

Q.34 What was the primary reason for the Japanese to support Subhas Chandra Bose and the formation of the INA?

1. They believed in India’s right to self-determination.
2. They were looking for allies in their fight against the British Empire.
3. They believed in Bose’s vision of a communist India.
4. They wanted to expand their influence in Southeast Asia.

Q.35 What ultimately undermined the INA’s efforts to free India from British rule?

1. Gandhi’s death
2. The Japanese surrender in 1945
3. The inferior military tactics of the British forces
4. The lack of support from the Indian and British people

Q.36 What was the significance of Bose’s slogan ‘Jai Hind’?

1. It symbolised the struggle against British colonialism.
2. It was a call to arms for the Indian and British Army.
3. It manifests the vision of selected communities.
4. It represented Bose’s vision of a capitalist India.

Q.37 How did Subhas Chandra Bose view India’s fight for independence?

1. Through political negotiations
2. Through economic sanctions
3. Through non-violent means
4. Through military campaigns

Comprehension: (Q.38 – Q41)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Algae are photosynthetic creatures that have pigments that aid in photosynthesis, such as
chlorophyll. They do not, however, have the actual stems, roots or leaves found in vascular
plants. While some of them have many cells, others are unicellular. They might establish
colonies as well. The majority of algae are aquatic. Some are terrestrial, and they can be
found on rocks, trees and moist soil. Certain algae species coexist well with other living
things. For instance, lichens are a symbiotic relationship between green (and often bluegreen)
algae and fungi. Algae are members of a multiphyletic group. This indicates that there
is no common ancestor and that the species in this category are not necessarily closely
related. They do not have other morphoanatomical characteristics typical of vascular plants,
but they do have one thing in common: they are eukaryotes with the principal pigment being
chlorophyll, which allows them to perform photosynthesis. Phycology is the scientific name for
the study of algae. The blue-green algae is one example of a reference. But some sources do
not classify them as algae because they are prokaryotes.

Q.38 What does the term ‘multiphyletic group’ mean in the context of algae?

1. Having a common ancestor
2. Being closely related species
3. No common ancestor, not closely related
4. Having diverse morphoanatomical characteristics

Q.39 Which statement accurately describes vascular plants based on the information in the passage?

1. Vascular plants lack stems, roots and leaves.
2. Vascular plants are unicellular in structure.
3. Vascular plants have true stems, roots and leaves, unlike algae.
4. Algae and vascular plants share the same morphoanatomical characteristics.

Q.40 According to the passage, which is the main pigment in algae for photosynthesis?

1. Chlorophyll
2. Melanin
3. Xanthophyll
4. Carotenoid

Q.41 What is the central theme of the passage?

1. The prokaryotic nature of blue-green algae
2. The anatomy of vascular plants
3. The symbiotic relationship between algae and fungi
4. The diversity and characteristics of algae

Comprehension: (Q.42 – Q45)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

The French Revolution is a revolutionary movement that occurred in France between 1787 and 1799 and reached to its (1)___ in 1789. This revolution had many causes but the most important of all was (2)___ of bourgeoisie, who were merchants, manufacturers and professionals. The peasants, many of them landowners, wanted to get rid of the practices of absolute monarchy and feudalism. Another factor was an increase in population due to decreased mortality rates. It was followed by economic predicament and minor revolts were common. This led to a clarion call for social reforms. Intellectuals like Rene Descartes wrote about new things about political, social and economic matters. A fundamental political and societal change was to occur. The French Revolution played a critical role in shaping modern nations by showing the world the power inherent in the will of the people.

Q.42 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘Inherent’.

1. Artificial
2. Borrowed
3. Incited
4. Natural

Q.43 What is the meaning of the phrase ‘a clarion call’ in the passage?

1. Declaration of war
2. Beginning of a new phase
3. A call for forces
4. A strongly expressed demand

Q.44 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

1. fall
2. pinnacle
3. foundation
4. middle

Q.45 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.

1. killing
2. hankering
3. sorrow
4. joy

Section : Module II General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following sentences is/are true?

1. All isoclines are expansion paths but all expansion paths are not isoclines.
2. Short-run production functions involve adjusting all inputs, including fixed inputs like land or capital, to affect output.
3. Stock resources are the resources which are not used in one period of production but can be stored for a later period.

1. Only ii
2. Only i
3. Only iii
4. Only ii and iii

Correct Answer: 3. Only iii

Explanation:

• i is incorrect: Isoclines are not expansion paths. Expansion paths represent optimal input combinations; isoclines show equal output slope.
• ii is incorrect: Short-run means some inputs (like land, capital) are fixed, not all adjustable.
• iii is correct: Stock resources can be stored and used later.

Q.2 Which of the following is a monoatomic gas?

1. Chlorin
2. Hydrogen
3. Xenon
4. Oxygen

Correct Answer: 3. Xenon

Explanation: Xenon is a noble gas and exists as monoatomic (single atom) gas. Others (like Hydrogen, Oxygen, Chlorine) are diatomic.

Q.3 Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below regarding Census 2011.

Statement 1. The population of India has increased by more than 181 million during the decade 2001-2011.
Statement 2. The percentage decadal growth during 2001-2011 has registered the sharpest decline since Independence.

1. Only statement 1 is correct.
2. Only statement 2 is correct.
3. Both statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
4. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Correct Answer: 4. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation:

• Census 2011 recorded a population increase of 181 million.
• The decadal growth rate (2001–2011) declined significantly compared to 1991–2001.

Q.4 What is the name of the ion with a charge of −1?

1. Cation
2. Monovalent ion
3. Polyvalent ion
4. Anion

Correct Answer: 4. Anion

Explanation:

• Ion with a negative charge (−1) is called an anion.
• Cation: Positive ion.
• Monovalent: Has 1 charge (can be +1 or −1).
• Polyvalent: Has multiple charges.

Q.5 In December 1991, which act was amended to bring public enterprises under the purview of the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) as part of the country’s economic reforms program?

1. Industries Act
2. Companies Act
3. Financial Rehabilitation Act
4. Sick Industrial Companies Act

Correct Answer: 4. Sick Industrial Companies Act

Explanation: In December 1991, this Act was amended to bring public enterprises under BIFR to identify and revive sick units.

Q.6 Which theory, independently introduced in 1923, led to the concept of acidbase conjugate pairs?

1. Brønsted-Lowry theory
2. Arrhenius theory
3. Davy’s theory
4. Lewi’s theory

Correct Answer: 1. Brønsted-Lowry theory

Explanation:

• Introduced acid-base conjugate pairs concept, where acid donates and base accepts protons.
• Arrhenius focused on H⁺ and OH⁻ in water.

Q.7 Who mentioned ecosystem as ‘the basic unit in ecology’ in 1956?

1. Aldo Leopold
2. Rachel Carson
3. John Harper
4. Francis Evans

Correct Answer: 4. Francis Evans

Explanation: He described the ecosystem as the basic unit of ecology in 1956.

Q.8 Identify the naturally occurring aluminum oxide mineral that usually forms hexagonal barrel-shaped prisms.

1. Corundum
2. Dolomite
3. Olivine
4. Chalcopyrite

Correct Answer: 1. Corundum

Explanation: Corundum is a naturally occurring aluminum oxide (Al₂O₃) mineral with hexagonal crystal structure.

Q.9 The Bharatmala project of the Government of India comes under which of the following Ministries of India?

1. Ministry of Ports Shipping and Waterways
2. Ministry of Environment and Forest and Climate Change
3. Ministry of Home Affairs
4. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

Correct Answer: 4. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

Explanation: Bharatmala is a road development project under this ministry.

Q.10 Mathura was the second capital of __ dynasty.

1. Gupta
2. Maurya
3. Kushana
4. Maukhri

Correct Answer: 4. Kushana

Explanation: Mathura was the second capital of the Kushana dynasty, after Purushapura (modern-day Peshawar).

Q.11 Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statements:
1) Ampere’s Law describes the relationship between electric current and the magnetic field it produces.
2) Maxwell’s equations are a set of four fundamental equations governing electric and magnetic fields in the absence of charges and currents.

1. Only Statement 2
2. Neither Statement 1 nor 2
3. Both Statements 1 and 2
4. Only Statement 1

Correct Answer: 4. Only Statement 1

Explanation:

• Ampere’s Law correctly relates electric current to the magnetic field it creates.
• Maxwell’s equations apply with or without charges and currents. Saying they only apply in the absence of charges and currents is incorrect.

Q.12 Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is caused by duplication of the peripheral myelin protein-22 (PMP22) gene on which chromosome?

1. chromosome 21
2. chromosome 15
3. chromosome 8
4. chromosome 17

Correct Answer: 4. Chromosome 17

Explanation: Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is caused by duplication of the PMP22 gene, located on chromosome 17.

Q.13 Which portal allowed stakeholders seamless access to information related to funding, documentation, project monitoring, and approval through four efficient ways of logging in for monitoring the implementation of Centrally Sponsored Schemes in 2023?

1. Digital India Portal
2. Viksit Bharat Portal
3. Nyaya Vikas Portal
4. Pradhan Mantri Jan bhagidari Yojana Portal

Correct Answer: 3. Nyaya Vikas Portal

Explanation: The Nyaya Vikas Portal was launched to monitor judicial infrastructure projects under Centrally Sponsored Schemes. It provides stakeholders with easy access to funding details, documentation, project approvals, and real-time monitoring. The portal supports four efficient login methods, ensuring transparency and effective implementation across district and subordinate courts.

Q.14 Who among the following was the first Home Minister of Independent India?

1. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
2. Humayun Kabir
3. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
4. Baldev Singh

Correct Answer: 1. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

Explanation: He was the first Home Minister of Independent India.

Q.15 What was the status of the agricultural sector in India before the Green Revolution?

1. Use of old technology and the absence of required infrastructure
2. Use of advanced technology and high productivity
3. Use of advanced technology and dependency on rainfall
4. Use of traditional technology and the abundance of required infrastructure

Correct Answer: 1. Use of old technology and the absence of required infrastructure

Explanation: Before Green Revolution, Indian agriculture relied on traditional tools, poor irrigation, and low productivity.

Q.16 In which year did Walter Fleming stain the chromosomes to see them clearly and describe the entire process of mitosis?

1. 1780
2. 1901
3. 1882
4. 1956

Correct Answer: 3. 1882

Explanation: Walter Fleming described mitosis and stained chromosomes using aniline dyes in 1882.

Q.17 Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts made the president bound by the advice of the council of ministers headed by the prime minister?

1. 40th
2. 46th
3. 48th
4. 42nd

Correct Answer: 4. 42nd

Explanation: 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) made the President bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Q.18 Match the books in List 1 with their authors in List 2. List 1 List 2

A. The Philosophy of the Bomb 1. Sachindranath Sanyal
B. Bandi Jiwan 2. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
C. Pather Dabi 3. Bhagwati Charan Vohra
D. Anandmath 4. Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay

1. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
2. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
3. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
4. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

Correct Answer: 1. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Explanation:

• A. The Philosophy of the Bomb – Bhagwati Charan Vohra
• B. Bandi Jiwan – Sachindranath Sanyal
• C. Pather Dabi – Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
• D. Anandmath – Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Q.19 The rotating columns of air that occur over water bodies and are generally less severe than land tornadoes are known as:

1. hurricanes
2. waterspouts
3. squalls
4. typhoons

Correct Answer: 2. Waterspouts

Explanation: Waterspouts are rotating columns of air over water, less intense than land-based tornadoes.

Q.20 In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court direct that, ‘the Parliament cannot take away or abridge any of the fundamental rights for the Implementation of Directive Principles’?

1. Minerva Mills Case, 1980
2. Keshvanand Bharti Case, 1973
3. Indira Sawhney Case, 1992
4. Golak Nath Case, 1967

Correct Answer: 4. Golak Nath Case, 1967

Explanation: In the Golak Nath Case (1967), the Supreme Court ruled that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution to take away or abridge Fundamental Rights, even for implementing Directive Principles. This landmark judgment upheld the supremacy of Fundamental Rights over Directive Principles.

Q.21 Who urged political parties to engage in discussions that inspire unity rather than division and promote ideas instead of personal attacks in the address on the eve of National Voters Day in January 2024?

1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi
2. Union Home Minister Amit Shah
3. Chief Election Commissioner Rajiv Kumar
4. President Droupadi Murmu

Correct Answer: 3. Chief Election Commissioner Rajiv Kumar

Explanation: On the eve of National Voters Day in January 2024, CEC Rajiv Kumar called upon political parties to promote unity and issue-based discussions, avoiding personal attacks.

Q.22 Who won the title at the World Chess Armageddon Asia & Oceania event in April 2023?

1. D Gukesh
2. P Harikrishna
3. Koneru Humpy
4. Viswanathan Anand

Correct Answer: 1. D Gukesh

Explanation: Indian Grandmaster D Gukesh clinched the title at the World Chess Armageddon Asia & Oceania event held in April 2023.

Q.23 Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

A. The first battle of Panipat was one of the decisive battles of India.
R. It brought into power a new band of invaders called Mughals.

1. Statements A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
2. Statements A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
3. R is true, but A is false.
4. A is true, but R is false.

Correct Answer: 2. Statements A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation: The First Battle of Panipat (1526) was decisive as it marked the beginning of Mughal rule in India, with Babur’s victory over Ibrahim Lodi.

Q.24 In the year 2020, National Digital Health Mission was launched on which of the following occasions?

1. Independence Day
2. Republic Day
3. Gandhi Jayanti
4. Diwali

Correct Answer: 1. Independence Day

Explanation: The National Digital Health Mission (NDHM) was launched on 15th August 2020, Independence Day, by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

Q.25 Which Indian city experiences the LEAST difference in average temperature between its hottest and coldest months?

1. Mumbai
2. Srinagar
3. Bhopal
4. Delhi

Correct Answer: 1. Mumbai

Explanation: Mumbai has a coastal climate, meaning its proximity to the Arabian Sea keeps the temperature relatively stable throughout the year.

🔥 Hottest Month Avg: ~32°C
❄️ Coldest Month Avg: ~24°C
📉 Difference: ~8°C

Other cities:

Srinagar: Huge difference due to its altitude and continental climate (e.g., summer ~30°C, winter ~0°C → Difference ~30°C)
Delhi: North Indian plains → Hot summers (~40°C), cold winters (~7°C) → Difference ~33°C
Bhopal: Also has significant seasonal variation → Difference ~20°C

Section : Module I Computer Knowledge Module

Q.1 Which of the following technologies allows real-time communication over the Internet, such as voice and video calls, without requiring additional software or hardware beyond a web browser?

1. FTP
2. VoIP
3. WebRTC
4. Email

Correct Answer: 3. WebRTC
Explanation: WebRTC (Web Real-Time Communication) enables real-time audio, video, and data sharing between browsers without requiring additional plugins or software.

Q.2 What is the primary advantage of being able to insert and delete slides in an MS PowerPoint presentation?

1. To enable the addition of multimedia content
2. To allow for dynamic content adjustment and organisation
3. To enhance slide transitions
4. To apply different templates to individual slides

Correct Answer: 2. To allow for dynamic content adjustment and organisation
Explanation: Inserting and deleting slides allows users to easily organize, update, or rearrange content, making presentations flexible and dynamic.

Q.3 Which method is used to protect sensitive information during data transmission?

1. Decryption
2. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
3. Compression
4. Hashing

Correct Answer: 2. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
Explanation: SSL encrypts data during transmission over the internet, ensuring secure communication between client and server.

Q.4 Which is the correct keyboard shortcut for adjusting the column width in MS Excel?

1. Shift + H + O + W
2. Alt + H + O + W
3. Ctrl + O + W + H
4. Ctrl + H + O + W

Correct Answer: 2. Alt + H + O + W
Explanation: This keyboard shortcut in MS Excel opens the “Column Width” dialog to adjust the width.

Q.5 Which action should be taken in Microsoft Outlook to send a received email to another person, while keeping the original message for your records?

1. Use the ‘Archive’ option and create a new email.
2. Open the email, click on ‘Forward’, and enter the recipient’s email address.
3. Click on ‘Reply’ and add the new recipient’s email address.
4. Click on ‘Reply All’ and select ‘Forward’ from the options.

Correct Answer: 2. Open the email, click on ‘Forward’, and enter the recipient’s email address.
Explanation: Forwarding a message sends a copy to another person while keeping the original intact.

Q.6 What security mechanism ensures that system updates are installed without user intervention?

1. Patch management software
2. Firewall
3. Secure Boot
4. Intrusion Detection System

Correct Answer: 1. Patch management software
Explanation: Patch management tools automate updates to fix vulnerabilities and bugs, often without user intervention.

Q.7 Which keyboard shortcut is used for adding bullets in MS Word 2010?

1. Ctrl + Alt + L
2. Ctrl + L
3. Shift + L
4. Ctrl + Shift + L

Correct Answer: 4. Ctrl + Shift + L
Explanation: In MS Word, this shortcut adds or removes bullets in a list.

Q.8 Which device is commonly used to connect computers within a LAN?

1. Modem
2. Router
3. Switch
4. Repeater

Correct Answer: 3. Switch
Explanation: A switch connects multiple devices in a LAN and efficiently manages data traffic.

Q.9 What is the primary reason DRAM needs to be refreshed periodically?

1. To prevent data corruption caused by magnetic fields
2. To recharge the capacitors storing data bits
3. To clear unused data
4. To allow the CPU to access new data

Correct Answer: 2. To recharge the capacitors storing data bits
Explanation: DRAM stores data using capacitors, which need periodic refreshing due to charge leakage.

Q.10 Which type of virus infects the boot sector of floppy disks or the Master Boot Record (MBR) of hard disks?

1. Direct Action Virus
2. Resident Virus
3. Macro Virus
4. Boot Sector Virus

Correct Answer: 4. Boot Sector Virus
Explanation: This type of virus infects the boot sector or MBR and loads before the operating system.

Q.11 Which feature in MS Word allows the user to apply a consistent look across text elements such as headings, titles and subtitles?

1. Template
2. Styles
3. Table
4. Macros

Correct Answer: 2. Styles
Explanation: “Styles” in MS Word apply consistent formatting (fonts, sizes, colors) across headings and text.

Q.12 What is the main purpose of using a template when creating a presentation in MS PowerPoint?

1. To ensure consistency and professionalism
2. To automatically insert multimedia content
3. To add complex animations easily
4. To create interactive quizzes within slides

Correct Answer: 1. To ensure consistency and professionalism
Explanation: Templates provide pre-designed layouts and styles, ensuring a uniform look throughout the presentation.

Q.13 Which of the following best describes Electronic Mail (E-mail)?

1. A method of sending messages electronically over a computer network.
2. A system for storing digital files on the cloud.
3. A type of secure online transaction system.
4. A service used to make phone calls over the internet.

Correct Answer: 1. A method of sending messages electronically over a computer network.
Explanation: Email is used for digital communication over the internet.

Q.14 Match the Task Manager tabs in column A with their respective functionalities in column B.

Column A	Column B
1. Processes	a) Monitors overall CPU, memory, disk, and network usage
2. Performance	b) Displays active applications and background processes
3. Startup	c) Manages programs that run during system startup
4. App History	d) Shows resource usage for Windows Store apps

1. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
2. 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
3. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
4. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

Correct Answer: 4. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
Explanation:

• Processes – shows running applications
• Performance – shows system resource usage
• Startup – manages startup programs
• App History – shows resource usage by Store apps

Q.15 Which operation can one directly perform using File Explorer in Windows?

1. Run diagnostic tests
2. Modify system settings
3. Move, copy, or delete files
4. Manage user accounts

Correct Answer: 3. Move, copy, or delete files
Explanation: File Explorer is used to manage files and folders — copying, moving, renaming, or deleting them.

Q.16 Which of the following statements about computer memory is/are correct?
RAM is volatile memory, meaning it loses data when power is turned off.
ROM is used to store essential instructions required for the computer to boot.

1. Neither 1 nor 2
2. Only 1
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Only 2

Correct Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:

• RAM is volatile and loses data when power is off.
• ROM holds essential boot instructions and is non-volatile.

Q.17 Select which of the given statement(s) is/are True or False for the Central Processing Unit (CPU) of the Computer Systems.

(i) The CPU’s clock speed controls the timing and execution speed of instructions.
(ii) The CPU’s cache memory provides high-speed access to frequently used instructions and data.

1. (i) True, (ii) True
2. (i) False, (ii) True
3. (i) False, (ii) False
4. (i) True, (ii) False

Correct Answer: 1. (i) True, (ii) True
Explanation:

• Clock speed affects instruction execution speed.
• Cache memory stores frequently accessed data for faster access.

Q.18 Which of the following is an example of a type of ROM that can be electronically erased and reprogrammed multiple times?

1. EEPROM
2. PROM
3. EPROM
4. Mask ROM

Correct Answer: 1. EEPROM
Explanation: EEPROM (Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory) can be erased and reprogrammed multiple times electronically.

Q.19 Match the file locating features in column A with their corresponding functionalities in column B.

Column A	Column B
1. Search Bar	a) Displays files and folders recently accessed
2. Quick Access	b) Allows grouping and sorting of files by attributes
3. Wildcards	c) Refines searches for files with partial names
4. File Sorting	d) Locates files and folders by typing keywords

1. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
2. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
3. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d
4. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b

Correct Answer: 4. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b
Explanation:

• Search Bar – finds files by keywords
• Quick Access – shows recently/frequently used files
• Wildcards – refine searches (e.g., *.docx)
• File Sorting – arranges files by name, size, date, etc.

Q.20 What is the maximum length of characters that can be accommodated in a column in MS Excel 2003?

1. 512 characters
2. 65536 characters
3. 1064 characters
4. 255 characters

Correct Answer: 4. 255 characters
Explanation: In MS Excel 2003, the maximum number of characters that can be entered in a single cell is 32,767, but only 255 characters are visible in a cell without modifying formatting.